The question was put, concerning the following Biblical verses:
"1 Cor 11: 8-9
8 For the man is not of the woman; but the woman of the man.
9 Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man."
"Is this a doctrine of the Church that women were created for men? I sure hope not. My ex-husband is such an ingrateful slob."
To which I responded:
I am not at all disturbed by the scripture because I have already come to accept that the Bible, like a large percentage of religious dogma, contains erroneous doctrines of mankind, often based upon the prejudices and misconceptions prevalent in the day the "revelation" was codified. This is just another example of that, and I feel perfectly at liberty to disregard and to refuse to follow/accept any doctrine which is not consistent with my view that men and women are of equal dignity and importance.
Of course, as one person has already commented, the scripture IS a problem for any biblical-inerrantists out there who effectively will embrace chauvenism if they accept this scripture as being God's inerrant word.